Can Any Forums solve this?

OP here, ok yeah we can close the thread now

nigger there hasn't even been a right answer yet
it's 25%

fpbp

>25%
retard

probability=1/(2^x)
With x being the amount of coins.
There are two possibilities for each coin: heads or tails.
We shall call heads 1 and tails 0.
Think of it like binary.
For one digit (coin), there are two possibilities, or 2^1.
For two digits (2^2), there are four possibilities: 00, 01, 10, and 11.
We are looking for 11.
Add one more coin, and the possibilities are 000, 001, 010, 011, 100, 101, 110, and 111.
A total of 2^3.
And one out of them is 1/(2^3).
12.5% for three coins, 25% for two, and 50% for one.

It's 50% because the question asked what's the probability that both landed heads on that particular flip where one was already confirmed to be heads, not what the probability from a starting position.

33.33% before the first lands
50% after the first coin lands
thread is now over go home

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50%
either it happened or it didnt

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KEK ok user, but we know the first coin is heads already

>you are told in advance something will happen but once it does happen it changes the probability

I love pseudo intellectuals that make everything they come across needlessly difficult and can't into semantics.
If you take the statement that one coin is already heads as a precondition and start from there, the probability is then absolute and effectively irrelevant. You're now reduced to only forecasting one outcome, hence 50% probability.
It's retards like you that come and shit up the private sector with your asinine approaches that make shit, unmaintainable products that have so much technical debt that it's easier to abandon and rewrite.

Is this the new version of the gold ball in a box question?

dunno, do they have tails?

we're just told at least one of them lands heads, not necessarily that the first one will be heads, therefore you can't assume that the first is heads which means 1/2. we're just asked what is the probability of both being heads if we are guaranteed at least one heads, which is 1/3

This is literally first day of a 1st year stats class. What the fuck are you retards doing?

going to trade school because i'm a burger serf

How is it 1/3? The probably of 1 coin flipping heads and a second coin flipping heads would be .5 And .5, which would 0.25.

there's 4 possible outcomes
T T
T H
H T
H H
we are guaranteed at least 1 heads, we don't know which one, but it lets us get rid of T T which means our probability becomes 1/3

holy shit. Any Forums is really that dumb.

it's 25% you niggers

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>conflating dependent and independent events in probability
Every question about this meme is poorly written. Each coin flip is an independent event.

see

Ok, fair enough.

Whoa, watch out for this pseudo-intellectual thinking each coin flip has anything to do with the other one.

There's a 2/3 chance you're responding to bait from OP so he can feel validated posting this shit, off topic thread

we're asked what's the probability of both being heads, so we need to consider them both

flip 2 coins:
(00,01,10,11)
at least one of them came up heads:
(01, 10, 11)
the probability space is just these three outcomes.

there is only one outcome where both come out heads, so the probability is 1/3

It's 100% retards
look at the picture in OP

That makes total sense but I hate the antichrist.

>flip T H
>rearrange coins on desk to make H T
>T H and H T are now the same event
the probability is 50%

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