What are the political implications of you spending 12 hours in the train for a 300 km trip?
Adam Long
>12 hours in the train for a 300 km trip I was lucky the train even arrived
Christopher Bennett
Tsiganesku, stop posting fake maps. Transilvania belongs to Hungary. Dobrogea/Dobrudzha to Bulgaria. The only reasonable territory claim that you have is Moldova.
Jaxon Russell
Romania can literally invade and conquer the pașalâc known as Turkgaria if it ever wanted
Kayden Hill
Do you have enough carts for that in Gypsyland?
Carson Reed
Quick question from a noneuro
Is Romania superior to Hungary?
Eli Harris
I agree bulgar bro, Dobruja should belong to Bulgaria. Your coastline so much cleaner and prettier than ours.
Colton Turner
>Do you still wear a mark in the bus? I don't think that I've worn the mask more than four times in the bus or public during this entire plandemic.
Brayden Miller
go back to India, Dacianlarper inb4 >we wuz Romans an shiet
end of your pathetic life you mongoloid ape (you're not golden skinned, you're yellow)
The Hungarian propagandists are unhappy with both of the two oldest Hungarian chronicles, “Gesta Hungarorum” by Anonymus (published sometime between 1200 and 1230) and “Gesta Hunorum et Hungarorum” by Simon of Keza (published sometime between 1282–1285) because they both mention that Romanians lived in Pannonia and in Transylvania before the arrival of the Hungarians.
However, the main problem as far as the propagandists are concerned is not what they think it is.
They believe the main problem is that the Romanians are mentioned there before the Hungarians.
The main problem actually is the date at which each of the two chronicles were published.
The propagandists and the trolls claim the Romanians only arrived in Pannonia and Transylvania in the 13th century, after the Mongolians had massacred the population there in 1241. Allegedly the kings of Hungary wanted to repopulate their realm so they invited the Romanians to move from the Balkans and Wallachia and to settle in Transylvania.
But if “Gesta Hungarorum” of Anonymus was written between 1200 and 1230, 11 years before the Mongolian invasion, that means the Romanians were not yet present in the kingdom of Hungary. If the Romanian arrival after 1241 would have been true, how on Earth could have Anonymous claimed the Hungarians conquered the territory from them without becoming instantly the laughing stock of his contemporaries?!?
Likewise, if the Romanians’ arrival in Transylvania after 1241 would have been true, then how come Simon of Keza would not have become instantly the laughing stock of his contemporaries, for writing in 1282 that the Romanians lived in Pannonia and in Transylvania before the Hungarians?!?