Was there massive immigration from Italy to Iberia, France...

Was there massive immigration from Italy to Iberia, France, Romania and any other place where Romance languages are now spoken? Otherwise why did Latin replace the local languages in these places but not in others?

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french urban centers yes, spanish coast and andalusia yes, romania somewhat due to dacia mine.

>not in others
As in? Latin or Greek was the main language in all the territories of the Empire before the Slavic migrations, except for maybe the regions along the Rhine which were Germanic.

>but not in others?
They did, barbarians happened to invade those places.
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/African_Romance

was portugal latin speaking before the muslims?

Latin was spoken in austria as pate ad the 8th century. The first bavarian text is actually a dictionary for bavarian and Latin speakers to understand each other

Kinda like with Spain and LatAm
Some countries speak spanish and had lots of spanish migration
Some didn't but still speak spanish
The difference is the germanics destroyed the romance language in Great Britain (it probably wasn't spoken much anyways), the slavs when they migrated to Yugoslavia and the arabs when they conquered north africa

If Latin had really been that strong why would it have been replaced by Arabic? It wasn't replaced by Germanic in France, Iberia or Italy. Besides Berber languages also exist in the area today so clearly Latin didn't cuck the area that thoroughly

Some celtic tribes/some suebi could've survived until 711 but only in northern portugal or the most remote valleys of Galicia

>Some didn't but still speak spanish
ALL Latinx countries, even Bolivia, have some degree of Spanish admixture and most were thoroughly changed demographically

Yes, Visigoths and Suevi spoke Vulgar Latin.

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en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Legio_IX_Hispana

the roman empire colonized dacia (present-day romania) and imposed the language. it got slacivized in time but relatinized in the 18th/19th century by the intellectual elite who wanted closer ties with france and the rest of the west

It wasn't as strong in africa, probably only spoken in cities, the majority would've spoken a Berber language and a big chunk were bilingual.
The germanic kingdoms always tried very hard to integrate into roman society, they liked to speak latin and appear as romans, something which wasn't the case with the arabs

I once read the local population in either Romania or Bulgaria was genocided by Romans. Don't remember which

I think it was mostly soldiers (military colonies) and businessmen (like the Spanish mines).
Latin might have taken over without mass migration, similar to how English took over in Africa even though the Anglo colonists were few, and the people are still black African.
Maybe even after the Goths and other Germanics took over Iberia/France it was easier for everyone to use Latin as the lingua franca similar to India today.

DA

romnanians are champions for surviving for 2000 years in balkans though

Kinda the same deal with all territories of the roman empire
Some cities were built for veteran soldiers, such as Merida (Emerita Augusta) or Zaragoza (Caesar Augusta)

>similar to how English took over in Africa even though the Anglo colonists were few, and the people are still black African.
The vast majority of people in Africa aren't monolingual English speakers, though. They all have their own languages as well. Same in India

Has there ever been a study to measure the impact of Roman immigration in these countries compared to before?

Probably, i'm not into genetics so i can't give you an answer

All of those places spoke Latin with several levels of Romanization. Some of the invaders didn't adopted Latin as their language, like the Muslims in Africa or the Slavs in the Balkans. This is the opposite of what the Visigoths (Iberia) or Ostrogths (Italy) did.

We had a few cities that were exclusively made for retired roman soldiers like auratio, but it's overall a complex topic