>His language doesn’t have the dental fricative
Pathetic
His language doesn’t have the dental fricative
Luke Reyes
Joshua Flores
>His country doesn't have specific letter(s) for dental fricatives
Lucas Nguyen
Th works fine
Zachary Long
Þat is wrong
You niggas be pronouncing Thelma like Þelma
Andrew Howard
[ðəʊ]
Jeremiah Walker
Iberian Spanish has it.
Kevin Miller
Be the thorn is used for both the voiced and voiceless dental fricative, isn't it?
Nolan Torres
Bullshit made up letter. D and T are more than enough.
Cameron Watson
why do efl's think this sound is difficult to pronounce for esl's? it's not
Kevin Evans
If it's not then why do half of them say d/t/s/z instead?
Ryan Hill
It's weird as fuck and seems unnatural.
Because they simply weren't teached correctly, but when you actually google how to make the both "th" sound in english, you'll see it's very easy, but kinda annoying at the begining.
Elijah Russell
It sounds normal to me
Luke Green
Our native language (Portuguese) doesn't have the voiced and the voiceless dental fricative, and We used to pronounce these phonemes incorrectly until recently when We actually decided to correct this.
Thou hast usedest these phonemes since thou wert a child, it's more natural for thee.
Samuel Carter
>Native language(portuguese)
>Filipino flag
I thought filipinos spoke tagalog?
Dylan Kelly
you're replying to a mentally ill apezilian faggot
Jeremiah Cooper
Historically, it's a bit complicated. After syncope in Scandinavia, ⟨ᚦ⟩ was used regardless of voicing (they were previously graphemically distinguished in the elder runic row), and this largely carried over into the classical period in East Norse dialects; Old Swedish regularly employs ⟨þ⟩ for both /θ/ and /ð/. In West Norse dialects, it was different, and in Old Icelandic in particular, a norm of distinguishing the voicing graphemically with ⟨þ⟩ and ⟨ð⟩ started surfacing (but it wasn't consequently applied in all writing, mind you), and this is whence the graphemic distinction in Icelandic today comes.
In the English corpus, the absolute oldest Latinate texts, ⟨th⟩ and ⟨d⟩ respectively were employed, before ⟨þ⟩ and ⟨ð⟩ were introduced. However, in Old English, the voicing was allophonic, and thus, ⟨þ⟩ and ⟨ð⟩ were interchangeable.
>Thou hast usedest
Stop. The second verb is infinitive; 'have' is an auxiliary there.
>Thou hast used
This actually reminds me of when some ESLs conjugate both verbs in an auxiliary construction, such as "did it made sense?", lmao. I wonder where the habit comes from.
Levi Wilson
>The second verb is infinitive
Brainfart on my end... it's not, but it's not person-conjugated, is what I meant. I haven't really woken up yet... it's half past five in the morning.
Jayden Young
Eθpaña
Cameron Perry
>a word for "to have" isn't at his language
William Carter
>Stop. The second verb is infinitive; 'have' is an auxiliary there.
We know, We are always making grammatical mistakes. We sometimes correct them in the next post and sometimes We don't.
William Hill
We pronounce it F