South Slavs

Slavic culture was developed in Bulgaria
Meanwhile you were a german slave for 1000 years with no achievements

South slavs are not even slavs anyway theyre mutted on average theyre like 15% slavic

they're mutts, their haplogroups show this.
but the vlachs were able to assert their language on the region, meanwhile the illyrians and dalmatians were BTFO, illyrians became albanians and dalmatians disappeared.

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Didn't the ancient Bulgarians come from Asian similarly to the Magyars though

Wrong

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i2 and r1a come from slavs

>Also are Romanians not Slavs? I always assumed that they were except for language.
Being a Slav is solely a linguistic thing.

they were turkic speakers but genetically speaking they were heterogenous, much like modern day volga tatars and other turkic peoples.

I2 is a hunter gatherer haplogroup, it predates the presence of slavic peoples in the balkans.
sardinia has a shit ton of I2 and they have no slavic blood.

Yeah, but they were literally not Slavs at all, they were Turkics relative to Volga Bulgarians before they settled in the Balkans and dissolved in Slavic blood.

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Beginning in early 6th century Slavs came down from Belarus+Western Ukraine are and smashed into Rome. Twice. Once sacked Balkans w/o opposition as they were too many, 2 years later they came and settled the place. Later migrations from West Slavs cleaved Greece all the way to the Peloponnese, leaving only coastal strongholds.

Most places around and South of Danube aren't majority Slavic by genetics, but integrated into the local Veche structures and slavicized. Romania stayed non-Slavic mostly due to politics (although I know the least about them) and partially due to isolation via mountains, same as Greece. Since Byzantium hid behind the straits and Slavic migration didn't reach Anatolia it was later easier to assume cultures native to the empire and just work with the locals. And so warlord Akamir became archon Akameros etc.

Nomads such as pseudo-Avars still kept coming into Europe from the Great Steppe and Hungary has a piece of flatland that allowed nomads to retain vestige of power several times when other places fell, so in time there came to exist an "avaro-slavic" population (actually way more mixed, with Germanics etc. anyone that stayed there) that then turned Hungarians when that last successful horde came there. In places like Hungary and Bulgaria nations formed around the nomad royal courts and that is where their identity came from. In some other places like Bohemia or Serbia the Slavs formed the incoming ruling class and it worked in reverse.

be quiet

He is correct I2 has came and become popular through Slavs. Slav opoulations picked it up at the modern Ukraine-Moldovan border, roughly, and some kind of founder effect took place.

You forget Slavs didn't come from the moon, they hovered a week's trek from the Balkans anyway.

Everyday I dream of a Balkans without Slavs or Albanians.
Does this happen in your country?

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Fun fact: there are models where Sorbs from Germany were the ones who took over Greece

Says who, lol. And Romanian is a Romance language. They are not Slavs, but they're Orthodox Christians.

TVRKISH BVLL SEED

That's a, hm, big stretch. When did West Slavs ever reach Roman Empire?

it is ethno-linguisitic, as it is stipulated anywhere in the definition. If it was linguistics only a Russian Tuvan would be a Slav. Don't just repeat what some dullard told you.

yeah I just mean it isn't the original slavic haplogroup, men from the globular amphora culture already overwhelmingly carried I2 before the indo-european language family began splitting.
I2 carriers were integrated into the slavic peoples for sure, but the ultimate origin of the language family is in R1a.

Slavs were the last people who defended Balkans against the Turks when the last remnant of the Roman Empire was decaying into nothingness.

Bahahahahaha, you're pretty funny for an anglo.

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